60 Practice Questions & Answers
A company needs to store documents that are accessed infrequently but must be retrievable within 24 hours. Which S3 storage class provides the most cost-effective solution?
-
A
S3 Intelligent-Tiering
-
B
S3 Glacier Deep Archive
✓ Correct
-
C
S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval
-
D
S3 Standard-IA
Explanation
S3 Glacier Deep Archive offers the lowest cost for long-term storage with retrieval times up to 24 hours (Standard retrieval option), making it ideal for infrequently accessed documents.
Which AWS service allows you to run containerized applications without managing the underlying infrastructure?
-
A
AWS Lambda
-
B
Amazon ECS
-
C
Amazon EC2
-
D
AWS Fargate
✓ Correct
Explanation
AWS Fargate is a serverless container orchestration service that eliminates the need to manage EC2 instances while running Docker containers through Amazon ECS or EKS.
Your application requires a database that can handle high throughput with flexible schema requirements and needs to scale horizontally. What would be the best choice?
-
A
Amazon Redshift
-
B
Amazon DynamoDB
✓ Correct
-
C
Amazon RDS MySQL
-
D
Amazon Aurora
Explanation
DynamoDB is a fully managed NoSQL database that provides automatic horizontal scaling and flexible schema, making it ideal for high-throughput applications with variable data structures.
An organization wants to establish a dedicated network connection between its on-premises data center and AWS with consistent network performance. Which service should be used?
-
A
AWS Transit Gateway
-
B
VPN Connection
-
C
AWS Direct Connect
✓ Correct
-
D
Amazon CloudFront
Explanation
AWS Direct Connect provides a dedicated network connection with consistent bandwidth and lower latency compared to VPN, which is ideal for hybrid architectures requiring predictable performance.
You need to protect your web application from DDoS attacks and filter malicious traffic at the application layer. Which service combination would be most effective?
-
A
Security Groups and Network ACLs
-
B
VPC Flow Logs and AWS GuardDuty
-
C
AWS WAF and AWS Shield Advanced with Application Load Balancer
✓ Correct
-
D
AWS WAF and AWS Shield Standard
Explanation
AWS WAF filters application-layer attacks while AWS Shield Advanced provides enhanced DDoS protection; both work effectively with ALB for comprehensive web application protection.
A solutions architect is designing a system that requires read replicas for disaster recovery and scaling read operations across multiple regions. Which database service best supports this?
-
A
Amazon Redshift with spectrum
-
B
Amazon Aurora with cross-region read replicas
✓ Correct
-
C
Amazon DynamoDB with Global Tables
-
D
Amazon RDS Multi-AZ deployment
Explanation
Amazon Aurora supports cross-region read replicas for disaster recovery and read scaling while maintaining high availability, making it ideal for multi-region deployments.
What is the maximum data size for a single object stored in Amazon S3?
-
A
10 GB
-
B
1 TB
-
C
100 GB
-
D
5 TB
✓ Correct
Explanation
Amazon S3 supports objects up to 5 TB in size; for objects larger than 5 GB, multipart upload must be used.
Your application experiences variable traffic patterns throughout the day. You want to ensure you have sufficient capacity during peak hours while minimizing costs. Which approach is recommended?
-
A
Use Reserved Instances exclusively for all capacity
-
B
Use a combination of Reserved Instances for baseline capacity and Spot Instances or On-Demand for variable load
✓ Correct
-
C
Use On-Demand Instances exclusively
-
D
Use Dedicated Hosts for all workloads
Explanation
Combining Reserved Instances for predictable baseline load with On-Demand or Spot Instances for variable demand provides cost optimization while maintaining capacity.
An organization requires encryption of data both in transit and at rest for compliance purposes. Which statement is true regarding S3 encryption?
-
A
S3 only supports encryption at rest, not in transit
-
B
S3 automatically encrypts all data in transit without any configuration needed, but at-rest encryption is optional
-
C
Encryption in transit requires manual configuration of TLS certificates
-
D
S3 supports both SSE-S3 and SSE-KMS for at-rest encryption, and SSL/TLS for in-transit encryption
✓ Correct
Explanation
S3 offers SSE-S3 and SSE-KMS for server-side encryption at rest, and automatically supports SSL/TLS for data in transit when HTTPS endpoints are used.
You are designing a highly available application with an RTO of 1 hour and RPO of 15 minutes. Which backup and recovery strategy would meet these requirements?
-
A
Weekly backups stored in Glacier
-
B
Continuous replication to another region with automated failover capability
✓ Correct
-
C
Manual daily backups to S3
-
D
Automated daily snapshots with manual restoration procedures
Explanation
Continuous replication ensures RPO of 15 minutes or less, while automated failover achieves an RTO of 1 hour, meeting the specified recovery objectives.
A company wants to implement infrastructure as code to manage AWS resources consistently across environments. Which service is specifically designed for this purpose?
-
A
AWS CloudFormation
✓ Correct
-
B
AWS Systems Manager
-
C
AWS OpsWorks
-
D
AWS Config
Explanation
AWS CloudFormation enables infrastructure as code through templates that define and provision AWS resources in a repeatable, consistent manner.
What is the primary benefit of using Amazon CloudFront for a static website hosted on S3?
-
A
It automatically scales your S3 bucket capacity based on demand
-
B
It increases storage capacity for your S3 bucket
-
C
It provides unlimited bandwidth at no additional cost
-
D
It caches content at edge locations closer to users, reducing latency and improving performance
✓ Correct
Explanation
CloudFront is a Content Delivery Network that caches content at edge locations worldwide, significantly reducing latency and improving user experience for global audiences.
Your organization needs to ensure that EC2 instances in a VPC can communicate with on-premises resources securely. The connection must support high availability. Which configuration is optimal?
-
A
Single VPN connection with static routes
-
B
VPC peering to on-premises network
-
C
Two VPN connections through different customer gateways with dynamic routing via BGP
✓ Correct
-
D
AWS Direct Connect with single connection to data center
Explanation
Multiple VPN connections with dynamic routing via BGP provides redundancy and high availability for hybrid connectivity, ensuring failover capability between gateways.
An application requires low-latency access to session data that is frequently updated. Which caching solution would be most appropriate?
-
A
Amazon ElastiCache for Memcached
-
B
Amazon ElastiCache for Redis
✓ Correct
-
C
Amazon RDS read replica
-
D
S3 with CloudFront
Explanation
ElastiCache for Redis provides in-memory caching with support for complex data structures and persistence, making it ideal for frequently updated session data requiring low latency.
You need to grant temporary access to AWS resources for a mobile application user without storing long-term credentials. What is the recommended approach?
-
A
Create a dedicated IAM user for each mobile application user
-
B
Store IAM access keys in the mobile application
-
C
Use Amazon Cognito to provide temporary security credentials via STS AssumeRole
✓ Correct
-
D
Use hardcoded AWS credentials in the application code
Explanation
Amazon Cognito integrates with STS to provide temporary security credentials, eliminating the need to store long-term credentials on mobile devices.
A company deploys applications across multiple availability zones in a region. Which of the following statements about RTO and availability is accurate?
-
A
Multi-AZ deployment reduces RTO but does not affect RPO
-
B
Multi-AZ deployment can significantly reduce RTO through automated failover, though RPO depends on replication lag
✓ Correct
-
C
Multi-AZ deployment is only effective for reducing storage costs, not for disaster recovery
-
D
Multi-AZ deployment always guarantees zero RTO and zero RPO
Explanation
Multi-AZ deployments enable automated failover across availability zones, reducing RTO; RPO depends on how frequently data is replicated between AZs.
Which AWS service provides real-time insights into API calls and AWS service activities for auditing and compliance?
-
A
AWS Config
-
B
Amazon GuardDuty
-
C
Amazon CloudWatch
-
D
AWS CloudTrail
✓ Correct
Explanation
AWS CloudTrail records and logs all API calls made to AWS services, providing an audit trail for compliance and security monitoring purposes.
You are designing a microservices architecture where services need to communicate asynchronously. Which combination of services would provide reliable message delivery and decoupling?
-
A
Amazon Kinesis for all messaging requirements
-
B
Amazon SQS for queuing with optional SNS for pub/sub patterns
✓ Correct
-
C
Amazon SNS only for all messaging needs
-
D
ElastiCache for message passing between services
Explanation
SQS provides reliable message queuing for decoupling, while SNS enables publish-subscribe messaging; together they support various async communication patterns in microservices.
A solutions architect must ensure that sensitive data in DynamoDB is encrypted using customer-managed keys. How should this be configured?
-
A
Use DynamoDB Streams to encrypt data automatically
-
B
Enable point-in-time recovery on the DynamoDB table
-
C
Configure DynamoDB encryption with AWS KMS and specify a customer-managed CMK
✓ Correct
-
D
Enable DynamoDB global tables for encryption
Explanation
DynamoDB encryption at rest can be configured with AWS KMS using a customer-managed customer master key (CMK) for enhanced control over key management.
Your organization uses multiple AWS accounts for different departments. You need a centralized way to manage user access across all accounts. What is the recommended solution?
-
A
Replicate IAM policies across all accounts using CloudFormation
-
B
Use a single master AWS account with direct access credentials shared across departments
-
C
Use AWS Organizations with cross-account IAM roles and centralized identity management
✓ Correct
-
D
Create IAM users in each account separately
Explanation
AWS Organizations enables centralized management across accounts with cross-account roles, providing scalable and secure access control without sharing credentials.
An application requires automatic scaling based on custom application metrics rather than CPU or memory. Which service should be used?
-
A
Application Auto Scaling with custom CloudWatch metrics as targets
✓ Correct
-
B
Elastic Load Balancing with connection-based scaling
-
C
Manual scaling through Lambda functions triggered by SNS notifications
-
D
AWS Auto Scaling with EC2 instances only
Explanation
Application Auto Scaling supports scaling based on custom CloudWatch metrics, allowing you to define scaling policies based on application-specific performance indicators.
When designing a resilient application, you must choose between scaling vertically and horizontally. Which scenario best favors horizontal scaling?
-
A
An application with a single large database that is the bottleneck
-
B
An application requiring large amounts of memory for in-process caching
-
C
A stateless web application that needs to handle increased request volume with multiple instances behind a load balancer
✓ Correct
-
D
A single-threaded application that cannot be parallelized
Explanation
Stateless applications can scale horizontally across multiple instances behind a load balancer, distributing traffic and improving resilience.
You need to monitor application performance metrics and create alarms that trigger SNS notifications when thresholds are exceeded. Which service should be configured?
-
A
AWS Systems Manager OpsCenter
-
B
Amazon CloudWatch with alarms subscribed to an SNS topic
✓ Correct
-
C
Amazon DevOps Guru
-
D
AWS X-Ray
Explanation
CloudWatch allows you to create custom alarms based on metrics; these alarms can be configured to send notifications through SNS topics.
A company requires that all data leaving the VPC be encrypted in transit. Which combination of services would enforce this requirement?
-
A
Network ACLs configured with encryption rules and application-level TLS/SSL
-
B
VPC Flow Logs with encryption enabled
-
C
AWS PrivateLink endpoints with mandatory TLS configuration at the application layer
✓ Correct
-
D
Security Groups alone are sufficient
Explanation
AWS PrivateLink provides private connectivity without internet exposure, and combined with mandatory TLS/SSL at the application layer, ensures all data transit is encrypted.
Which S3 feature allows you to replicate objects across AWS regions automatically for disaster recovery?
-
A
S3 Cross-Region Replication (CRR)
✓ Correct
-
B
S3 Bucket Policies
-
C
S3 Event Notifications
-
D
S3 Transfer Acceleration
Explanation
S3 Cross-Region Replication automatically copies objects from a source bucket to a destination bucket in another region for disaster recovery and compliance.
An organization wants to establish a hub-and-spoke network topology connecting multiple VPCs and on-premises networks. Which AWS service is specifically designed for this architecture?
-
A
AWS Transit Gateway
✓ Correct
-
B
AWS AppMesh
-
C
VPC Peering
-
D
Amazon Route 53
Explanation
AWS Transit Gateway acts as a central hub to connect multiple VPCs and on-premises networks, simplifying network management in complex topologies.
A company needs to store frequently accessed data with sub-millisecond latency. Which AWS service should be used?
-
A
Amazon ElastiCache
✓ Correct
-
B
Amazon DynamoDB with DAX
-
C
Amazon RDS with read replicas
-
D
Amazon S3 with CloudFront
Explanation
ElastiCache provides in-memory caching for sub-millisecond latency. While DAX is also valid for DynamoDB, ElastiCache is the primary caching solution for general-purpose ultra-low latency requirements.
What is the maximum number of security groups that can be attached to an EC2 instance by default?
-
A
3
-
B
5
✓ Correct
-
C
20
-
D
10
Explanation
The default maximum is 5 security groups per EC2 instance, though this limit can be increased via AWS support.
A solutions architect is designing a multi-region application that requires strong consistency across all regions. Which database solution best meets this requirement?
-
A
DynamoDB on-demand in multiple regions with eventual consistency
-
B
RDS Multi-AZ with cross-region read replicas
-
C
RDS Multi-AZ in a single region with application-level replication
✓ Correct
-
D
DynamoDB with global tables
Explanation
RDS Multi-AZ provides strong consistency within a region. For true multi-region strong consistency, application-level replication or synchronous writes are necessary, as distributed systems cannot achieve both high availability and strong consistency across regions (CAP theorem).
Which AWS service allows you to run containerized applications without managing the underlying servers?
-
A
AWS AppConfig
-
B
AWS Lambda for containers only
-
C
AWS Fargate
✓ Correct
-
D
EC2 with Docker installed
Explanation
AWS Fargate is a serverless container orchestration service that runs containers without requiring you to manage EC2 instances or clusters directly.
A company wants to migrate a monolithic on-premises application to AWS with minimal code changes. Which migration strategy is most appropriate?
-
A
Repurchase with a SaaS solution
-
B
Refactor to microservices
-
C
Replatform to containers
-
D
Rehost using AWS Application Migration Service
✓ Correct
Explanation
AWS Application Migration Service (MGN) is designed for rehost migrations with minimal changes, lifting and shifting applications to AWS while maintaining compatibility.
What happens to data stored in an EC2 instance store when the instance is stopped?
-
A
Data is automatically backed up to S3
-
B
Data persists only if the instance is restarted within 24 hours
-
C
Data is preserved indefinitely
-
D
Data is lost
✓ Correct
Explanation
Instance store data is ephemeral and lost when the instance is stopped or terminated. For persistent storage, use EBS volumes or S3.
An organization requires encryption at rest for sensitive data in S3 buckets with customer-managed encryption keys. Which encryption method should be used?
-
A
Client-side encryption before uploading to S3
-
B
S3 bucket policies restricting access to encrypted objects
-
C
S3 Server-Side Encryption with AWS KMS (SSE-KMS)
✓ Correct
-
D
S3 default encryption with AES-256
Explanation
SSE-KMS with customer-managed keys provides server-side encryption at rest while maintaining customer control over the encryption keys through AWS KMS.
A web application requires autoscaling based on a custom business metric not available in CloudWatch. What solution best addresses this?
-
A
Publish the custom metric to CloudWatch and create a scaling policy
✓ Correct
-
B
Use AWS Systems Manager for application-level scaling
-
C
Use EC2 Auto Scaling with step scaling policies
-
D
Implement manual scaling using AWS Lambda
Explanation
Custom metrics can be published to CloudWatch using the PutMetricData API, then used to create Auto Scaling policies just like built-in metrics.
Which feature of VPC allows a private subnet to communicate with the internet while preventing inbound traffic from the internet?
-
A
NAT Gateway
✓ Correct
-
B
AWS PrivateLink
-
C
VPC Peering
-
D
Network ACL with egress rules
Explanation
A NAT Gateway enables outbound internet connectivity from private subnets while blocking unsolicited inbound traffic, perfect for secure outbound-only communication.
A company uses AWS Organizations and wants to apply security policies across all member accounts. Which service should be used?
-
A
AWS Security Hub with centralized management
✓ Correct
-
B
Amazon GuardDuty in the management account only
-
C
AWS Config Rules in each account separately
-
D
AWS CloudTrail in each account
Explanation
AWS Security Hub aggregates and centrally manages security findings across multiple AWS accounts and regions, making it ideal for Organizations-wide security policies.
What is the primary benefit of using Amazon CloudFront over serving content directly from an S3 bucket?
-
A
Reduced latency through edge locations and caching
✓ Correct
-
B
Automatic image resizing and format conversion
-
C
Lower storage costs for the S3 bucket
-
D
Elimination of the need for S3 bucket policies
Explanation
CloudFront distributes content globally through edge locations, providing reduced latency and improved performance compared to direct S3 access from a single region.
An application needs to process 1 million messages per day with guaranteed delivery and ordering within message groups. Which service is most suitable?
-
A
Amazon SNS with message filtering
-
B
Amazon SQS with FIFO queues
✓ Correct
-
C
AWS Lambda with event source mapping
-
D
Amazon Kinesis Data Streams
Explanation
SQS FIFO queues provide guaranteed message ordering within message group IDs and exactly-once processing, ideal for ordered message delivery requirements.
A database requires automatic backups with point-in-time recovery capability. Which RDS feature provides this?
-
A
Database snapshots only
-
B
Multi-AZ deployment
-
C
Read replicas
-
D
Automated backups and transaction logs
✓ Correct
Explanation
RDS automated backups combined with transaction logs enable point-in-time recovery (PITR) to any second within the backup retention period.
A solutions architect is designing a system that must handle variable traffic spikes while minimizing costs. Which combination of services is most cost-effective?
-
A
Auto Scaling group with mixed instances policy and Savings Plans
✓ Correct
-
B
Reserved instances with On-Demand capacity during peaks
-
C
Spot instances with On-Demand instances as fallback
-
D
Dedicated hosts with dynamic resource allocation
Explanation
A mixed instances policy combining Reserved Instances (or Savings Plans) for baseline load with Spot instances for variable traffic provides optimal cost efficiency.
What does AWS Config primarily monitor?
-
A
Database query performance and optimization
-
B
Network packet flow and bandwidth usage
-
C
Application performance metrics and logs
-
D
Configuration compliance and resource inventory
✓ Correct
Explanation
AWS Config tracks configuration changes and evaluates resource compliance against rules, maintaining a detailed inventory of AWS resources and their configurations.
A company needs to establish a private connection between its on-premises data center and AWS without using the public internet. Which solution should be implemented?
-
A
CloudFront distribution with custom origin
-
B
VPN connection with Internet Gateway
-
C
AWS Direct Connect
✓ Correct
-
D
VPC peering with public route tables
Explanation
AWS Direct Connect establishes a private, dedicated network connection between on-premises infrastructure and AWS, bypassing the public internet.
Which IAM policy evaluation logic applies when there are multiple conflicting policies?
-
A
The most permissive policy always wins
-
B
Policies are evaluated in creation order with the first result applied
-
C
An explicit deny always overrides any allow
✓ Correct
-
D
The most restrictive policy always wins
Explanation
IAM uses explicit deny as the ultimate policy: any explicit deny statement overrides all allow statements, following the principle of least privilege.
A Lambda function needs to access a database in a private VPC subnet. What additional configuration is required?
-
A
Place the Lambda function in the same VPC with appropriate security group and subnet configuration
✓ Correct
-
B
Attach an Elastic IP to the Lambda function
-
C
Use AWS PrivateLink to create a service endpoint
-
D
Configure the Lambda function with VPC settings and a NAT Gateway
Explanation
Lambda functions must be explicitly configured with VPC settings (subnet and security groups) to access resources in a private VPC.
An application stores session data that expires after 24 hours. Which service is most appropriate and cost-effective?
-
A
Amazon RDS with automated cleanup jobs
-
B
Amazon DynamoDB with TTL attribute
✓ Correct
-
C
Amazon S3 with lifecycle policies
-
D
Amazon ElastiCache with expiration policy
Explanation
DynamoDB with TTL (Time To Live) automatically deletes expired items, making it cost-effective for session data that needs automatic expiration.
What is the maximum size of a single object that can be uploaded to S3 in a single PUT request?
-
A
10 GB
-
B
1 GB
-
C
100 GB
-
D
5 GB
✓ Correct
Explanation
The maximum object size for a single PUT request is 5 GB. Larger objects require multipart upload.
A distributed application requires a highly available, scalable NoSQL database with strong consistency and ACID transactions. Which service best meets these requirements?
-
A
DynamoDB standard with eventual consistency
-
B
DynamoDB with strong consistency enabled
-
C
Amazon DocumentDB (MongoDB-compatible)
✓ Correct
-
D
RDS Aurora with multi-region read replicas
Explanation
Amazon DocumentDB provides ACID transactions with strong consistency and is designed for scalable NoSQL workloads, while DynamoDB's strong consistency has limitations on transaction scope.
Which CloudWatch metric indicates that an RDS database is experiencing storage constraints?
-
A
CPUUtilization
-
B
ReadLatency
-
C
DatabaseConnections
-
D
FreeStorageSpace
✓ Correct
Explanation
FreeStorageSpace metric shows available storage on the database instance. Low values indicate storage constraints and potential need for instance resize.
A company wants to implement blue-green deployment for a critical application with zero downtime. Which service or combination best supports this?
-
A
AWS CodeDeploy with Auto Scaling groups and load balancer switching
-
B
AWS Elastic Beanstalk with environment swap
✓ Correct
-
C
Amazon EC2 Image Builder with manual instance replacement
-
D
AWS CloudFormation with stack updates
Explanation
AWS Elastic Beanstalk's environment swap feature enables zero-downtime blue-green deployments by switching traffic between two identical environments instantaneously.
What is the primary purpose of an AWS Systems Manager Session Manager?
-
A
Provide secure shell access to EC2 instances without SSH keys or bastion hosts
✓ Correct
-
B
Monitor system performance metrics and log files
-
C
Manage EC2 instance metadata and user data
-
D
Schedule and execute automation runbooks on EC2 instances
Explanation
Session Manager provides secure, audited shell access to EC2 instances through the AWS Systems Manager console, eliminating the need for SSH keys or bastion hosts.
A company hosts a multi-tier application on AWS using Auto Scaling groups across multiple Availability Zones. They want to ensure that during a scale-down event, instances are terminated in a way that minimizes disruption to their application. Which Auto Scaling group termination policy should they use?
-
A
AllocationStrategy
-
B
NewestInstance
-
C
Default (OldestInstance)
-
D
OldestLaunchTemplate
✓ Correct
Explanation
OldestLaunchTemplate terminates instances launched with the oldest launch template version first, which is ideal for gradual application updates during scale-down while maintaining consistency.
An organization uses Amazon RDS for MySQL and needs to implement a disaster recovery solution with Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of 1 minute and Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 1 second. Which approach best meets these requirements?
-
A
Enable automated backups with a retention period of 35 days
-
B
Use RDS Multi-AZ with synchronous replication and automatic failover
✓ Correct
-
C
Create manual snapshots every 30 minutes
-
D
Deploy read replicas across multiple regions with asynchronous replication
Explanation
RDS Multi-AZ with synchronous replication provides near-zero RPO and automatic failover within seconds, meeting the strict RTO and RPO requirements.
A solutions architect is designing an application that requires persistent block storage for a database server running on EC2. The storage must support up to 32,000 IOPS and needs to be available across Availability Zones. Which storage solution is most appropriate?
-
A
Amazon EBS st1 (Throughput Optimized HDD) volumes
-
B
Amazon EBS io2 volumes with EBS Multi-Attach
✓ Correct
-
C
Amazon EBS gp3 volumes with snapshots copied to another AZ
-
D
Instance store volumes with RAID 0 configuration
Explanation
EBS io2 volumes support up to 64,000 IOPS and with Multi-Attach can be connected to multiple instances, though for true AZ resilience, Multi-AZ replication strategies are recommended.
A startup is building a web application that will experience unpredictable traffic patterns. They want to minimize operational overhead while ensuring the application scales automatically. Which AWS service combination is most suitable?
-
A
AWS Elastic Beanstalk with default auto-scaling configuration
✓ Correct
-
B
Application Load Balancer with manually configured EC2 instances
-
C
Amazon EC2 instances behind a Network Load Balancer with custom CloudWatch alarms
-
D
AWS AppSync with DynamoDB for full serverless architecture
Explanation
AWS Elastic Beanstalk automatically handles capacity provisioning, load balancing, and auto-scaling, reducing operational overhead while providing the flexibility needed for unpredictable traffic.
A company stores sensitive customer data in Amazon S3 and wants to ensure encryption both in transit and at rest. They also need granular control over encryption keys. What is the best approach?
-
A
Implement client-side encryption before uploading to S3 with self-managed keys
-
B
Use AWS Key Management Service (KMS) managed keys (SSE-KMS) and enforce HTTPS for all connections
✓ Correct
-
C
Enable S3 server-side encryption with S3-managed keys (SSE-S3)
-
D
Use S3 bucket policies to restrict access and rely on AWS managed encryption only
Explanation
SSE-KMS provides granular key control through AWS KMS, and enforcing HTTPS ensures encryption in transit, meeting both requirements while maintaining AWS-managed security benefits.
An e-commerce platform uses DynamoDB for product catalog with high read traffic. The table has a partition key on 'ProductID' and is experiencing throttling during peak hours. Which optimization strategy would be most cost-effective?
-
A
Switch to on-demand billing mode instead of provisioned capacity
✓ Correct
-
B
Enable DynamoDB Streams and migrate read queries to RDS
-
C
Implement DynamoDB global secondary indexes (GSI) on frequently queried attributes
-
D
Increase provisioned write capacity units (WCU) for the table
Explanation
On-demand billing mode automatically scales capacity based on actual demand, eliminating throttling and being cost-effective for unpredictable read traffic patterns without manual adjustments.
A solutions architect is designing a hybrid architecture where an on-premises data center needs secure connectivity to AWS with consistent network performance. Which AWS service provides a dedicated network connection?
-
A
Amazon CloudFront for content delivery acceleration
-
B
AWS VPN CloudHub for multi-site connectivity
-
C
AWS Transit Gateway with VPN attachments only
-
D
AWS Direct Connect for dedicated network connection
✓ Correct
Explanation
AWS Direct Connect provides a dedicated physical network connection between on-premises and AWS, offering consistent network performance and lower latency compared to VPN-based solutions.
A microservices application deployed on Amazon ECS requires each service to have different IAM permissions. What is the best practice for managing permissions in this scenario?
-
A
Create separate IAM roles and assign them to individual ECS task definitions
✓ Correct
-
B
Store IAM credentials in environment variables within the ECS task definition
-
C
Assign a single IAM role to all ECS tasks with all required permissions
-
D
Use EC2 instance IAM roles and configure all services to inherit those permissions
Explanation
Creating separate IAM roles for each ECS task definition follows the principle of least privilege, ensuring each service has only the permissions it needs.
A company has a fleet of EC2 instances running a stateless application and wants to reduce costs while maintaining performance. They can tolerate occasional interruptions lasting up to 2 hours. Which EC2 purchase option should they prioritize?
-
A
On-demand instances with application load balancing across regions
-
B
Reserved Instances with 3-year commitment for maximum savings
-
C
Spot Instances with on-demand instances as fallback in an Auto Scaling group
✓ Correct
-
D
Dedicated Hosts for consistent performance and compliance
Explanation
Spot Instances provide up to 90% cost savings and can tolerate the specified interruptions; combining with on-demand fallback ensures availability while maximizing savings.
A solutions architect needs to implement cross-region disaster recovery for a critical application with a 15-minute RTO requirement. The application uses Amazon RDS MySQL and Amazon S3 for static assets. Which multi-region strategy is most cost-effective while meeting RTO?
-
A
Deploy RDS read replicas in the secondary region with manual promotion and replicate S3 data via S3 cross-region replication
-
B
Create RDS automated backups stored in secondary region and manually restore when needed
-
C
Deploy a full active-active architecture with application servers in both regions and bidirectional database replication
-
D
Use RDS with synchronous cross-region replication and implement S3 Cross-Region Replication for failover
✓ Correct
Explanation
RDS read replicas can be promoted to primary in under 15 minutes when replication lag is minimal, and S3 Cross-Region Replication provides near real-time asset availability, meeting RTO without the cost of full active-active deployments.