59 Practice Questions & Answers
Which wireless standard operates at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies and is commonly used in enterprise deployments?
-
A
802.11ac
-
B
802.11a
-
C
802.11b
-
D
802.11n
✓ Correct
Explanation
802.11n is the standard that operates at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz, making it widely compatible with enterprise environments. 802.11ac operates only at 5 GHz.
In a fabric-based network architecture, what is the primary function of spine switches?
-
A
To terminate all user access ports
-
B
To manage VLAN trunk operations
-
C
To provide edge connectivity to end devices
-
D
To act as the core switching fabric and provide interconnection between leaf switches
✓ Correct
Explanation
Spine switches form the backbone of a fabric network and interconnect all leaf switches, providing the core switching capacity and scalability. Leaf switches handle edge connectivity.
Which QoS mechanism marks traffic at the network layer using the Differentiated Services Code Point field?
-
A
802.1p tagging
-
B
DSCP marking
✓ Correct
-
C
Queue scheduling
-
D
Traffic policing
Explanation
DSCP (Differentiated Services Code Point) marks traffic at Layer 3 using the Type of Service field in the IP header. 802.1p operates at Layer 2.
What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be created on a standard enterprise switch?
-
A
1024
-
B
8192
-
C
256
-
D
4094
✓ Correct
Explanation
The standard 802.1Q VLAN specification supports VLAN IDs 1-4094, with VLAN 1 being the default and IDs 4095 reserved. This allows for 4094 usable VLANs.
In OSPF, what does a Type 5 LSA represent?
-
A
A network link within an area
-
B
An intra-area route with cost metrics
-
C
An external route redistributed into OSPF
✓ Correct
-
D
A summary route between areas
Explanation
Type 5 LSAs (Autonomous System External LSAs) represent routes external to the OSPF autonomous system that have been redistributed into OSPF.
Which encryption standard is recommended for securing WPA2 enterprise wireless networks?
-
A
AES-CCMP
✓ Correct
-
B
TKIP with RC4
-
C
PPTP encryption
-
D
WEP encryption
Explanation
AES-CCMP (Counter Mode with CBC-MAC Protocol) is the encryption standard used in WPA2 Enterprise and provides strong security for wireless networks. WEP and TKIP are deprecated.
What is the primary purpose of implementing network segmentation using micro-segmentation?
-
A
To eliminate the need for firewalls
-
B
To reduce bandwidth consumption
-
C
To limit lateral movement and reduce attack surface in case of compromise
✓ Correct
-
D
To improve routing efficiency
Explanation
Micro-segmentation divides a network into smaller zones to maintain separate access control and prevent lateral movement of threats, significantly improving security posture.
In BGP, what is the purpose of the AS_PATH attribute?
-
A
To specify the next-hop IP address for a route
-
B
To determine the administrative distance of a route
-
C
To set the local preference value for route selection
-
D
To identify the autonomous systems that a route has traversed
✓ Correct
Explanation
The AS_PATH attribute in BGP contains a list of ASNs that a route has passed through, used for loop detection and path selection. It directly prevents routing loops.
Which technology allows multiple physical switches to operate as a single logical switch unit?
-
A
Virtual Switching System or Stackwise
✓ Correct
-
B
Spanning Tree Protocol
-
C
Inter-Switch Link Protocol
-
D
Link Aggregation Control Protocol
Explanation
Virtual Switching System (VSS) or Cisco StackWise technology allows multiple physical switches to function as a single logical switch, simplifying management and increasing availability.
What is the primary difference between unicast and multicast routing in terms of group membership?
-
A
Unicast uses source trees while multicast uses shared trees
-
B
Unicast is more scalable in large networks
-
C
Unicast sends to a single destination while multicast sends to multiple recipients who have joined a group
✓ Correct
-
D
Multicast requires more bandwidth than unicast
Explanation
Multicast allows one source to send to multiple receivers who have subscribed to a multicast group, whereas unicast sends to a single specific destination address.
In EIGRP, what metric is used by default to calculate the route cost?
-
A
Hop count only
-
B
Load and reliability only
-
C
Bandwidth and delay
-
D
A composite metric including bandwidth, delay, reliability, load, and MTU
✓ Correct
Explanation
EIGRP uses a composite metric by default that incorporates bandwidth, delay, reliability, load, and MTU, providing more intelligent path selection than simple hop count.
Which protocol is used to synchronize time across network devices and is critical for security operations?
-
A
SMTP
-
B
DNS
-
C
NTP
✓ Correct
-
D
SNMP
Explanation
NTP (Network Time Protocol) synchronizes time across network devices, which is essential for accurate logging, certificate validation, and security event correlation.
What is the primary function of the Control Plane in a software-defined network architecture?
-
A
To forward data packets between network interfaces
-
B
To make intelligent decisions about traffic flow and network behavior
✓ Correct
-
C
To encrypt all network communications
-
D
To manage physical switch hardware configurations
Explanation
The Control Plane in SDN makes network-wide decisions about traffic routing and behavior, while the Data Plane handles actual packet forwarding based on Control Plane decisions.
In a highly secure enterprise environment, which access control method combines multiple authentication factors?
-
A
Password-only authentication with length requirements
-
B
Role-based access control without additional verification
-
C
Multi-factor authentication requiring something you know, have, and are
✓ Correct
-
D
Single-factor authentication with username and password
Explanation
Multi-factor authentication (MFA) requires at least two of three factors: something you know (password), something you have (token), and something you are (biometric), significantly improving security.
Which SNMP version introduced encryption and authentication features for secure network monitoring?
-
A
SNMPv2c
-
B
SNMPv4
-
C
SNMPv3
✓ Correct
-
D
SNMPv1
Explanation
SNMPv3 introduced User-Based Security Model (USM) with encryption and authentication capabilities, addressing security limitations of earlier SNMP versions.
What is the primary advantage of using VXLAN for data center network virtualization?
-
A
It reduces bandwidth requirements across the network
-
B
It eliminates the need for physical network infrastructure
-
C
It increases the number of available VLANs from 4094 to over 16 million
✓ Correct
-
D
It provides hardware-based encryption for all traffic
Explanation
VXLAN encapsulates Ethernet frames within UDP packets, enabling Virtual Network Identifiers (VNI) with 24-bit space supporting over 16 million segments, far exceeding VLAN's 4094 limit.
In a redundant network design, what is the purpose of implementing an Spanning Tree Protocol bridge priority value?
-
A
To increase the speed of convergence when links fail
-
B
To eliminate all spanning tree calculations
-
C
To force specific switches to become the root bridge and control the topology
✓ Correct
-
D
To automatically block all redundant ports in the network
Explanation
Bridge priority values in STP allow administrators to manually control which switch becomes the root bridge, ensuring predictable and optimal network topology design.
Which IPv6 address type is used for communication within a single link and has a scope limited to the local segment?
-
A
Unicast address
-
B
Global unicast address
-
C
Link-local address
✓ Correct
-
D
Site-local address
Explanation
Link-local addresses in IPv6 (starting with fe80::/10) are automatically configured and used for communication on the same physical link, similar to APIPA in IPv4.
What does the Cisco Enterprise Architecture framework recommend for separating network functions into logical tiers?
-
A
Only two tiers: edge and backbone
-
B
Access, Distribution, and Core layers with defined roles and responsibilities
✓ Correct
-
C
A single consolidated tier for all services
-
D
Unlimited number of tiers for maximum flexibility
Explanation
The Cisco three-tier hierarchical model defines Access (user connectivity), Distribution (policy enforcement and aggregation), and Core (high-speed backbone) layers, each with specific functions.
In network monitoring, what is the primary difference between NetFlow and sFlow?
-
A
sFlow is only available on Cisco devices while NetFlow is vendor-neutral
-
B
NetFlow cannot monitor encrypted traffic
-
C
NetFlow uses sampling while sFlow captures all packets
-
D
NetFlow is flow-based while sFlow uses packet sampling at the interface level
✓ Correct
Explanation
NetFlow is flow-based monitoring technology that aggregates traffic flows, while sFlow performs statistical packet sampling at the interface level, providing different granularity levels.
Which routing protocol metric is considered the slowest to converge when a network topology change occurs?
-
A
RIP with metric of 15 hops maximum
✓ Correct
-
B
BGP with path vector mechanisms
-
C
EIGRP with dual algorithm
-
D
OSPF using link-state calculations
Explanation
RIP has the slowest convergence due to its 15-hop limit, lack of sophisticated routing decisions, and reliance on periodic updates, making it unsuitable for large networks.
In a software-defined WAN architecture, what is the primary function of a SD-WAN edge device?
-
A
To eliminate the need for a security gateway
-
B
To intelligently steer traffic across multiple WAN links based on application requirements
✓ Correct
-
C
To provide traditional BGP routing services exclusively
-
D
To increase the number of physical WAN connections required
Explanation
SD-WAN edge devices apply application-aware policies to intelligently route traffic across multiple WAN connections (MPLS, broadband, LTE), optimizing performance and reducing costs.
What is the primary security risk associated with allowing SSH version 1 connections on network devices?
-
A
It requires more bandwidth than Telnet
-
B
It uses stronger encryption than SSH version 2
-
C
It is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks due to cryptographic weaknesses
✓ Correct
-
D
It prevents the use of public key authentication
Explanation
SSHv1 has known cryptographic vulnerabilities that make it susceptible to man-in-the-middle attacks; therefore, SSHv2 should be enforced on all enterprise network devices.
In MPLS, what is the primary purpose of a Label Switch Path (LSP)?
-
A
To eliminate the need for IP routing entirely
-
B
To establish a predetermined path through the network with explicit route specification
✓ Correct
-
C
To encrypt all traffic traveling through the MPLS network
-
D
To replace BGP in the network core completely
Explanation
An LSP in MPLS defines a predetermined path through the network, allowing traffic engineering and explicit routing that can optimize network resource utilization and guarantees.
Which routing protocol is recommended for use within a single autonomous system and supports VLSM and CIDR?
-
A
BGP
-
B
EGP
-
C
IS-IS
-
D
OSPF
✓ Correct
Explanation
OSPF is an Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) that operates within a single AS and fully supports VLSM and CIDR. BGP is an exterior protocol, while EGP is obsolete.
In OSPF, what is the default hello interval on a broadcast network?
-
A
10 seconds
✓ Correct
-
B
30 seconds
-
C
5 seconds
-
D
40 seconds
Explanation
The default hello interval in OSPF on broadcast networks is 10 seconds. The dead interval is 40 seconds (4 times the hello interval).
Which OSPF LSA type is used to advertise networks within an area and is generated by routers within that area?
-
A
Type 3 LSA
-
B
Type 1 LSA
✓ Correct
-
C
Type 2 LSA
-
D
Type 4 LSA
Explanation
Type 1 LSAs (Router LSAs) are generated by each OSPF router to advertise all interfaces and networks directly connected to that router within the same area.
What is the primary function of a designated router (DR) in OSPF on a broadcast network segment?
-
A
To filter routing advertisements based on area policies
-
B
To reduce the number of adjacencies and LSA flooding by acting as a central point
✓ Correct
-
C
To manage BGP peer relationships on behalf of all routers on the segment
-
D
To encrypt all routing protocol messages within the area
Explanation
The DR serves as a central point for OSPF routers on a broadcast network, reducing the number of full adjacencies and controlling LSA flooding. All routers form adjacencies with the DR (and BDR) rather than with each other.
In an OSPF environment, which metric is used to calculate the cost of a route?
-
A
Reference bandwidth divided by interface bandwidth
✓ Correct
-
B
Bandwidth
-
C
A combination of delay and reliability values
-
D
Hop count
Explanation
OSPF uses a cost metric calculated as the reference bandwidth (default 100 Mbps) divided by the interface bandwidth. This allows OSPF to prefer higher-bandwidth paths.
Which Cisco IOS command is used to verify OSPF neighbor adjacencies?
-
A
show ip ospf topology
-
B
show ip ospf neighbors
✓ Correct
-
C
show ip ospf interface brief
-
D
show ip ospf database
Explanation
The 'show ip ospf neighbors' command displays all OSPF neighbors and their adjacency states. The other commands show different OSPF information but not neighbor status.
What is the purpose of the OSPF Area Border Router (ABR)?
-
A
To connect OSPF domains to external non-OSPF networks
-
B
To maintain the backbone area and enforce area policies for all connected areas
-
C
To provide encryption between different routing domains
-
D
To interconnect multiple OSPF areas and filter Type 3 LSAs between areas
✓ Correct
Explanation
An ABR connects multiple OSPF areas and controls the flow of routing information between them. ABRs generate Type 3 LSAs to advertise networks from one area to another, effectively filtering and summarizing routing information.
In a dual-stack IPv4 and IPv6 network, what is the primary advantage of using OSPFv3?
-
A
It eliminates the need for IPv4 addressing on router interfaces when IPv6 is deployed
-
B
It supports routing for both IPv4 and IPv6 address families in a single protocol instance
-
C
It provides stronger authentication mechanisms than OSPF for IPv4
-
D
It allows for routing IPv6 traffic while using IPv4 control plane messages
✓ Correct
Explanation
OSPFv3 can route IPv6 traffic while still using IPv4 for its control plane adjacencies and messaging, allowing for gradual migration to IPv6. This provides flexibility during dual-stack transitions.
Which BGP attribute is used to indicate the list of AS numbers that the route has traversed?
-
A
COMMUNITIES
-
B
AS_PATH
✓ Correct
-
C
NEXT_HOP
-
D
LOCAL_PREF
Explanation
The AS_PATH attribute contains the sequence of AS numbers that a BGP route has traversed, and is used to prevent routing loops. Each AS adds its number when the route passes through.
What is the default BGP local preference value, and which direction does a higher value prefer?
-
A
Default 100, higher values are preferred for outbound traffic
✓ Correct
-
B
Default 200, higher values have no effect on path selection within the AS
-
C
Default 50, higher values are preferred for outbound traffic
-
D
Default 100, higher values are preferred for inbound traffic
Explanation
BGP's default local preference is 100. Higher local preference values are preferred for outbound traffic (egress), making them preferred over lower values when multiple paths exist.
In BGP, what is the purpose of the MULTI_EXIT_DISC (MED) attribute?
-
A
To advertise the bandwidth capacity of a BGP route to peer routers
-
B
To authenticate BGP updates between neighboring routers on the same link
-
C
To prevent routing loops by tracking the number of AS hops
-
D
To indicate the preferred entry point into an autonomous system from an external AS
✓ Correct
Explanation
The MED attribute is used to influence the path selection of incoming traffic into an AS by indicating preference for entry points. Lower MED values are preferred when comparing routes from the same neighboring AS.
Which BGP path selection criterion is evaluated first when comparing routes learned from different eBGP neighbors?
-
A
Shortest AS_PATH length
-
B
Lowest origin type value
-
C
Highest local preference value
✓ Correct
-
D
Lowest NEXT_HOP metric to the BGP neighbor
Explanation
Local preference is evaluated early in BGP's path selection process and influences outbound traffic direction. It has higher priority than AS_PATH length when selecting among valid routes.
What does the BGP 'next-hop-self' command accomplish in a route reflector or confederation setup?
-
A
It modifies the NEXT_HOP attribute to point to the router's own IP address before advertising the route to iBGP peers
✓ Correct
-
B
It enables automatic address translation for BGP route advertisements across different routing domains
-
C
It prevents the router from accepting routes where the NEXT_HOP is the same as the router's own address
-
D
It ensures that all routes learned from external peers are immediately redistributed to internal peers unchanged
Explanation
The 'next-hop-self' command modifies the NEXT_HOP attribute to the router's own IP address when advertising routes to iBGP neighbors. This is critical in non-full-mesh iBGP topologies or when using route reflectors.
In EIGRP, what does the 'K' value represent and how does it affect metric calculation?
-
A
Keepalive interval; higher K values increase convergence speed
-
B
Encryption key strength; higher K values provide better security
-
C
Knowledge base reference; used to track the number of EIGRP database entries
-
D
Constants used in the metric formula; different K values can be used by routers to calculate compatibility
✓ Correct
Explanation
EIGRP K values are constants (K1 through K5) used in the metric calculation formula. Routers must have matching K values to form adjacencies and calculate compatible metrics.
Which EIGRP metric component is calculated using bandwidth and delay, and represents the preferred path metric?
-
A
Load metric
-
B
Feasible distance (FD)
✓ Correct
-
C
Reported distance (RD)
-
D
Reliability metric
Explanation
The Feasible Distance (FD) is the metric to reach a destination through the best known path and is calculated using bandwidth, delay, and K values. The Reported Distance (RD) is the metric reported by a neighbor.
In EIGRP, what condition must be met for a backup route to be considered a feasible successor?
-
A
The backup route must originate from the same source AS as the successor
-
B
The backup route must have the same K values as the successor route
-
C
The backup route's RD must be lower than the successor's FD
✓ Correct
-
D
The backup route's delay value must be less than half the successor's delay
Explanation
For a route to be a feasible successor in EIGRP, its Reported Distance (RD) must be less than the Feasible Distance (FD) of the current successor. This ensures loop-free backup paths.
What is the primary benefit of using EIGRP's Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL)?
-
A
It allows EIGRP to automatically adjust K values based on network conditions
-
B
It enables EIGRP to merge different autonomous systems into a single routing domain transparently
-
C
It encrypts all EIGRP control plane traffic to prevent eavesdropping
-
D
It guarantees fast convergence with loop-free alternate paths without waiting for the full topology to stabilize
✓ Correct
Explanation
DUAL provides fast convergence by computing loop-free alternate paths before a failure occurs. If the successor fails, a feasible successor can be used immediately without recomputing the entire topology.
In a network using MPLS, what is the primary function of a Label Switch Router (LSR)?
-
A
To forward packets based on labels in the MPLS header rather than traditional IP destination addresses
✓ Correct
-
B
To translate between IPv4 and IPv6 addresses in a multi-protocol network environment
-
C
To encrypt MPLS labels to prevent unauthorized access to the label distribution protocol
-
D
To perform BGP route filtering and policy enforcement at the label edge
Explanation
An LSR forwards packets based on MPLS labels rather than examining the IP header, enabling efficient forwarding along predetermined Label Switched Paths (LSPs).
What is the purpose of the Label Distribution Protocol (LDP) in an MPLS network?
-
A
To authenticate MPLS-enabled routers and prevent unauthorized label assignment
-
B
To compress MPLS labels and reduce the size of label headers in the packet
-
C
To dynamically distribute label-to-FEC mappings between adjacent LSRs so they can forward traffic along LSPs
✓ Correct
-
D
To monitor the quality of service on each Label Switched Path and adjust traffic accordingly
Explanation
LDP is responsible for dynamically discovering adjacent LSRs and distributing label-to-Forwarding Equivalence Class (FEC) mappings between them, enabling proper MPLS forwarding.
In a Multiprotocol BGP (MP-BGP) deployment for MPLS-based VPNs, what is the primary purpose of Route Distinguishers (RDs)?
-
A
To distribute label mappings from the ingress PE router to the egress PE router
-
B
To prioritize VPN traffic over regular IP traffic in the MPLS core network
-
C
To identify which customer the route belongs to and allow the same IP prefix to be used by multiple customers
✓ Correct
-
D
To encrypt BGP updates so that customer routes cannot be seen by unauthorized parties
Explanation
Route Distinguishers are used in MP-BGP to uniquely identify routes from different customers, allowing VPN customers to use overlapping or identical IP address spaces.
Which QoS queuing mechanism is recommended for real-time applications like VoIP and provides strict priority to specified traffic?
-
A
Priority Queuing (PQ)
✓ Correct
-
B
First In, First Out (FIFO)
-
C
Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ)
-
D
Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (CBWFQ)
Explanation
Priority Queuing (PQ) provides strict priority handling and empties the high-priority queue before processing lower-priority traffic, making it ideal for time-sensitive applications like VoIP.
In Cisco's Modular QoS Command-Line Interface (MQC), which command is used to match traffic based on an IP access list?
-
A
match protocol tcp
-
B
match access-group number
-
C
match ip address name
✓ Correct
-
D
set class-map ip-acl
Explanation
In MQC, the 'match ip address' command in a class-map matches traffic against a named or numbered IP access list. This is used to classify traffic for policy enforcement.
What is the primary purpose of implementing traffic policing in a QoS policy?
-
A
To shape traffic to conform to a configured rate limit and drop or mark excess traffic
✓ Correct
-
B
To guarantee minimum bandwidth allocation to critical applications
-
C
To encrypt sensitive traffic before it enters the network core
-
D
To balance the load across multiple routers in the network
Explanation
Traffic policing enforces a rate limit by dropping or remarking traffic that exceeds the configured rate, ensuring traffic does not exceed the specified threshold.
In a network implementing policy-based routing (PBR), what is the primary advantage over destination-based routing?
-
A
PBR requires less memory and processing power on the router compared to standard IP routing
-
B
PBR allows routing decisions to be made based on criteria other than the destination IP address, such as source IP, protocol, or port number
✓ Correct
-
C
PBR eliminates the need for dynamic routing protocols like OSPF or BGP
-
D
PBR automatically encrypts traffic based on source and destination addresses
Explanation
Policy-based routing enables forwarding decisions based on multiple criteria including source IP, protocol type, application port, and QoS markers, not just destination address.
Which Cisco IOS command is used to configure a route policy for BGP to set the local preference attribute?
-
A
route-map mymap permit 10 → set local-preference 200
✓ Correct
-
B
policy-map mymap class traffic → set preference 200
-
C
bgp policy mymap → local-preference 200
-
D
access-list 100 permit ip any any → set metric 200
Explanation
Route maps with the 'set local-preference' command are used in BGP to modify the local preference attribute. The syntax is 'route-map name permit/deny sequence' followed by match and set conditions.
Which OSPF network type requires manual configuration of neighbors and does not support multicast?
-
A
Point-to-multipoint non-broadcast
-
B
Broadcast
-
C
Non-broadcast
✓ Correct
-
D
Point-to-point
Explanation
Non-broadcast networks (such as X.25 and Frame Relay) require manual neighbor configuration and do not support multicast, necessitating unicast updates.
In a hub-and-spoke MPLS L3VPN topology, what is the primary function of the route target community?
-
A
To establish BGP peering relationships with customer sites
-
B
To calculate the shortest path in the core network
-
C
To identify which VRF instances should import or export routes
✓ Correct
-
D
To encrypt traffic between PE and CE routers
Explanation
Route targets are BGP extended communities used to control which VRF instances import and export specific VPN routes, enabling the separation of customer traffic.
Which spanning tree protocol feature allows rapid transition to forwarding without waiting for the forward delay timer?
-
A
Loop Guard
-
B
Root Guard
-
C
BPDU Guard
-
D
Portfast
✓ Correct
Explanation
Portfast enables immediate transition to forwarding state on edge ports by skipping the listening and learning states, suitable for end-device connections.
What is the primary advantage of using BGP graceful restart capability in a network undergoing maintenance?
-
A
It automatically reroutes traffic through alternative paths during configuration changes
-
B
It allows routers to establish new TCP sessions without resetting counters
-
C
It prevents BGP neighbors from timing out during planned router upgrades and eliminates the need for session persistence
-
D
It enables a BGP speaker to recover its routing state from a peer after a restart without loss of forwarding path
✓ Correct
Explanation
BGP graceful restart allows a router to recover its BGP state from its peers after a restart, maintaining forwarding while control plane recovers.
In an EIGRP deployment, which metric component would be most affected by adding a second WAN link with half the bandwidth of the primary link?
-
A
Delay metric
-
B
Reliability metric
-
C
Bandwidth metric
✓ Correct
-
D
Load metric
Explanation
Bandwidth metric in EIGRP is based on the slowest link in the path; adding a slower link would decrease composite metric due to the inverse bandwidth calculation.
Which QoS mechanism is most appropriate for preventing TCP global synchronization in a congested network?
-
A
Weighted Round Robin (WRR) scheduling
-
B
Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (CBWFQ) with fixed queue sizes
-
C
Random Early Detection (RED) or WRED
✓ Correct
-
D
Strict Priority queuing
Explanation
RED/WRED randomly drops packets before queue overflow occurs, preventing all TCP flows from backing off simultaneously and recovering at the same time.
When implementing a hub-and-spoke topology with DMVPN, what is the primary function of the NHRP protocol?
-
A
To map logical NBMA addresses to physical IP addresses and enable dynamic tunnel formation
✓ Correct
-
B
To encrypt and authenticate traffic between remote sites across the Internet
-
C
To establish IPsec tunnels between spokes without prior configuration
-
D
To manage QoS policies and bandwidth allocation across multiple VPN tunnels
Explanation
NHRP (Next Hop Resolution Protocol) provides dynamic mapping of NBMA addresses to IP addresses, enabling spoke-to-spoke tunnel establishment without central configuration.
In a network running OSPF, which command output would best indicate that a router has become the designated router for a segment?
-
A
show ip ospf neighbor displaying 'FULL/DR'
-
B
show ip ospf database displaying only Type 1 and Type 2 LSAs
-
C
show ip ospf interface displaying 'State DR' and 'network type broadcast'
✓ Correct
-
D
show ip route ospf displaying multiple entries with metric value of 1
Explanation
The output of 'show ip ospf interface' displays the DR state and network type, directly confirming whether a router is the designated router.
Which BGP path attribute has the highest priority in the BGP best path selection algorithm according to Cisco implementations?
-
A
Origin type
-
B
Weight attribute
✓ Correct
-
C
Multi-Exit Discriminator (MED)
-
D
AS_PATH length
Explanation
Weight is a Cisco-specific attribute with highest preference in BGP best path selection, evaluated before checking AS_PATH, origin, or MED attributes.
In an environment where multicast traffic must traverse multiple VLANs and switches, which protocol must be configured to ensure proper multicast group management across the switched network?
-
A
Static multicast routes with TTL adjustments
-
B
MSDP (Multicast Source Discovery Protocol)
-
C
PIM Dense Mode
-
D
IGMP snooping
✓ Correct
Explanation
IGMP snooping allows switches to intelligently forward multicast traffic only to ports with interested receivers by monitoring IGMP membership messages.