CompTIA Certification

SK0-005 — Server+ Study Guide

59 practice questions with correct answers and detailed explanations. Use this guide to review concepts before taking the practice exam.

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About the SK0-005 Exam

The CompTIA Server+ (SK0-005) certification validates professional expertise in CompTIA technologies. This study guide covers all 59 practice questions from our SK0-005 practice test, complete with correct answers and explanations to help you understand each concept thoroughly.

Review each question and explanation below, then test yourself with the full interactive practice exam to measure your readiness.

59 Practice Questions & Answers

Q1 Easy

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of a UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) in a server environment?

  • A To regulate voltage fluctuations in AC power circuits
  • B To provide temporary power during an outage and allow for graceful shutdown ✓ Correct
  • C To distribute electrical power across multiple server racks
  • D To permanently replace the main power supply in a data center
Explanation

A UPS provides battery backup power to keep systems running during outages, allowing time for graceful shutdown or failover to backup systems. While voltage regulation is a feature, the primary purpose is temporary power continuity.

Q2 Medium

What is the primary advantage of implementing RAID 6 over RAID 5 in a production server environment?

  • A RAID 6 eliminates the need for hot spare drives
  • B RAID 6 provides faster write performance than RAID 5
  • C RAID 6 requires fewer disks to achieve redundancy
  • D RAID 6 allows tolerance of two simultaneous disk failures ✓ Correct
Explanation

RAID 6 uses dual parity and can survive the failure of any two drives simultaneously, whereas RAID 5 with single parity can only tolerate one drive failure. This is critical for large capacity drives with longer rebuild times.

Q3 Medium

A server administrator notices that CPU usage is consistently at 95% during business hours. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate first troubleshooting step?

  • A Enable CPU overclocking to increase performance
  • B Reduce the number of concurrent users accessing the server
  • C Identify which processes are consuming the most CPU resources ✓ Correct
  • D Immediately upgrade to a faster processor
Explanation

Before making hardware changes, the administrator must identify which processes are causing high CPU usage to determine if the problem is application-related, workload-related, or truly hardware-constrained.

Q4 Medium

Which type of network switch port configuration allows multiple VLANs to transmit traffic over a single physical link?

  • A Uplink port
  • B Access port
  • C Management port
  • D Trunk port ✓ Correct
Explanation

A trunk port carries traffic from multiple VLANs using tagging (802.1Q or ISL), allowing multiple VLANs to traverse a single physical link. Access ports only handle a single VLAN.

Q5 Hard

A server experiences intermittent network connectivity issues. Network logs show that the server is losing its ARP cache entries unexpectedly. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

  • A ARP timeout values are set too low on the server or network device ✓ Correct
  • B The network switch is experiencing packet loss
  • C The server's DNS configuration is incorrect
  • D The server's network interface card is failing intermittently
Explanation

ARP cache entries expire based on timeout values; if these are configured too aggressively, entries will be purged prematurely, causing the connectivity issues described. This can be adjusted in OS network settings.

Q6 Medium

When performing a server backup, which backup method would restore data the FASTEST in the event of total system failure?

  • A Full backup on a regular schedule ✓ Correct
  • B Differential backup strategy
  • C Incremental backup with full backup baseline
  • D Synthetic full backup approach
Explanation

A full backup contains all data and requires only a single restore operation, making it the fastest recovery method for total system failure. Other methods require multiple backup sets to be restored sequentially.

Q7 Medium

A server administrator needs to ensure that a mission-critical database server maintains service availability during hardware maintenance. Which of the following solutions would be MOST appropriate?

  • A Deploy a more powerful backup server in the same location
  • B Implement a database replication and failover cluster solution ✓ Correct
  • C Configure redundant network interfaces with NIC bonding or teaming
  • D Increase the size of the server's RAM and storage capacity
Explanation

Database replication with automatic failover provides true high availability, allowing the service to continue on another server during maintenance without interruption. Other options provide redundancy but not automatic failover.

Q8 Medium

Which of the following best describes the relationship between thermal design power (TDP) and server cooling requirements?

  • A TDP determines the physical size of cooling fans required in the chassis
  • B TDP is the ambient temperature range for optimal server performance
  • C TDP indicates the maximum temperature at which a processor can safely operate
  • D TDP represents the average heat energy dissipation under maximum load, guiding cooling capacity needs ✓ Correct
Explanation

TDP (measured in watts) indicates the amount of heat a processor generates under maximum load, which directly determines the cooling capacity needed. It is NOT a temperature measurement but a power measurement.

Q9 Medium

A server's event log shows repeated disk I/O timeout errors on a RAID array. Which troubleshooting action should the administrator perform FIRST?

  • A Immediately rebuild the RAID array
  • B Check disk health status using drive diagnostics and review SMART data ✓ Correct
  • C Increase the I/O timeout values in the storage controller settings
  • D Replace all drives in the RAID array preemptively
Explanation

SMART data and drive diagnostics will identify which specific drive is failing or degrading, allowing targeted replacement rather than unnecessary replacement of healthy drives.

Q10 Medium

Which of the following scenarios would BEST justify implementing a SAN (Storage Area Network) instead of direct-attached storage?

  • A Multiple servers need to share storage resources, require high availability, and need centralized management capabilities ✓ Correct
  • B An organization has low bandwidth requirements and limited IT staff
  • C A single server requires fast local storage access for basic file operations
  • D The environment contains only legacy applications with minimal data requirements
Explanation

A SAN is designed for scenarios where multiple servers need shared access to storage, high availability, and centralized management. Single-server scenarios typically don't justify the complexity and cost of SAN infrastructure.

Q11 Hard

A server administrator is configuring a new physical server and needs to optimize network performance for a high-throughput database application. Which of the following NIC configurations would provide the BEST performance improvement?

  • A Increase the TCP window size to its maximum possible value
  • B Enable RSS (Receive Side Scaling) and configure multiple queues on the NIC ✓ Correct
  • C Configure the NIC to operate at 1 Gbps instead of 10 Gbps for stability
  • D Disable interrupt coalescing entirely to process packets immediately
Explanation

RSS distributes incoming traffic across multiple CPU cores/queues, improving throughput and reducing latency for high-performance applications. This is a standard best practice for database servers.

Q12 Medium

When a server requires security patches, what is the BEST practice for applying them to minimize downtime in a clustered environment?

  • A Wait until a newer patch version is available to minimize the number of updates needed
  • B Apply patches to all servers simultaneously during scheduled maintenance window
  • C Apply patches only to servers that show security vulnerability warnings
  • D Apply patches to one server at a time while the others continue serving traffic, then fail back ✓ Correct
Explanation

In a clustered environment, applying patches to one server at a time with failover allows the cluster to maintain availability throughout the patching process. This is called a rolling update.

Q13 Easy

A server is experiencing memory pressure, with the page file usage increasing significantly. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation?

  • A The server's BIOS needs to be updated
  • B The system has insufficient RAM and is using disk-based virtual memory to compensate ✓ Correct
  • C The network card requires additional memory resources
  • D The processor cache is becoming fragmented
Explanation

When RAM is insufficient, the operating system pages memory to disk (page file/swap space), which is much slower than physical RAM. High page file usage indicates memory pressure and a need for additional RAM.

Q14 Medium

Which of the following represents the PRIMARY security benefit of implementing firmware updates on server hardware components?

  • A Firmware updates improve compatibility with legacy operating systems
  • B Firmware updates increase processing speed and computational capacity
  • C Firmware updates reduce power consumption and operational costs
  • D Firmware updates patch security vulnerabilities that could be exploited in hardware or low-level software ✓ Correct
Explanation

Firmware updates address security vulnerabilities at the hardware and BIOS level, protecting against attacks like Spectre, Meltdown, and other low-level exploits that bypass OS protections.

Q15 Medium

A server administrator discovers that a physical server's motherboard is failing. Before replacing it, what is the FIRST critical step to ensure data preservation?

  • A Disable all network connections to prevent unauthorized access
  • B Back up all data and configuration from the server to external storage ✓ Correct
  • C Replace the motherboard before completing any other actions
  • D Power off the server immediately to prevent further hardware damage
Explanation

Backing up data and configuration is critical before hardware replacement to prevent data loss. While powering off is important to prevent damage, data preservation takes priority.

Q16 Hard

Which of the following is the BEST description of how processor affinity (CPU affinity) can improve server performance?

  • A It prevents the processor from entering power-saving states that reduce performance
  • B It assigns specific processes or threads to particular CPU cores, reducing cache misses and context switching overhead ✓ Correct
  • C It balances all processes equally across all available processor cores and threads
  • D It automatically overclocks specific CPU cores for high-priority processes only
Explanation

CPU affinity pins specific threads to specific cores, which improves cache locality and reduces expensive context switching operations. This is particularly beneficial for latency-sensitive applications.

Q17 Hard

A server's power supply fails unexpectedly. Which of the following is a sign that the power supply was likely the failing component?

  • A The server displays consistent blue screen errors with memory corruption messages
  • B The server's network connectivity intermittently drops
  • C The server reboots randomly under high power load or thermal conditions ✓ Correct
  • D The server operates normally until receiving heavy I/O operations
Explanation

A failing power supply typically causes random reboots under load when it cannot supply sufficient power, especially during thermal stress. This is a classic symptom of PSU failure.

Q18 Hard

When configuring a server's IPMI (Intelligent Platform Management Interface), which of the following security measures is MOST critical?

  • A Configure IPMI to use a dedicated, isolated management network separate from production traffic ✓ Correct
  • B Enable IPMI on all network interfaces to ensure accessibility from any location
  • C Set the IPMI BMC password to the same value as the server's OS password for consistency
  • D Disable IPMI encryption to improve response times and reduce latency
Explanation

IPMI provides out-of-band management access with powerful capabilities; isolating it on a dedicated management network significantly reduces the attack surface and security risks.

Q19 Hard

A server administrator needs to measure actual disk I/O performance for a production server. Which metric would provide the MOST meaningful representation of overall storage subsystem performance?

  • A The number of physical spindles in the storage array
  • B The average file size being stored on the disk
  • C Disk queue length and average response time under realistic workload conditions ✓ Correct
  • D Maximum theoretical throughput advertised by the storage manufacturer
Explanation

Disk queue length and response time under actual workload conditions provide real performance data, whereas theoretical throughput and spindle count do not account for actual usage patterns and overhead.

Q20 Easy

Which of the following best describes why proper cable management is important in server infrastructure?

  • A Cable management determines the maximum network bandwidth available to the server
  • B Proper cable management increases the processor clock speed automatically
  • C Proper cable management improves airflow, reduces heat buildup, and prevents accidental disconnections ✓ Correct
  • D Cable management is primarily a cosmetic concern with minimal technical impact
Explanation

Proper cable management improves cooling efficiency by not blocking airflow, reduces the risk of cables being accidentally disconnected, and facilitates maintenance. Poor cable management directly impacts thermal performance.

Q21 Hard

A server administrator is troubleshooting slow performance on a database server with redundant network interfaces configured. Diagnostics show the secondary NIC is not receiving traffic. What is the MOST likely configuration issue?

  • A The server's operating system does not support network interface redundancy
  • B The secondary NIC is not configured with a valid IP address
  • C The secondary NIC requires a firmware update for proper operation
  • D The network switch port for the secondary NIC is not properly configured or enabled in the same VLAN ✓ Correct
Explanation

If the secondary NIC is not receiving traffic despite being installed, the most common cause is a network layer issue such as the switch port not being enabled or configured for the correct VLAN.

Q22 Medium

Which of the following scenarios would require the use of a hardware RAID controller rather than software RAID?

  • A When high throughput, reliability, and fault tolerance are critical and CPU overhead must be minimized ✓ Correct
  • B When the organization prefers to use all commodity hardware without specialized components
  • C When the server will only store less than 1TB of data across all drives
  • D When CPU resources are abundant and the organization wants to minimize hardware costs
Explanation

Hardware RAID controllers offload RAID processing from the CPU, providing better performance and reliability for mission-critical systems. Software RAID is appropriate for non-critical systems where CPU availability is not a concern.

Q23 Medium

A server's CPU temperature is reported as 85°C while the motherboard temperature is normal. What should the administrator do FIRST?

  • A Immediately schedule the server for replacement as the CPU is failing
  • B Increase the fan speeds to the maximum possible setting immediately
  • C Check CPU cooler mounting, thermal paste condition, and airflow around the CPU socket area ✓ Correct
  • D Lower the ambient room temperature of the data center
Explanation

A localized high CPU temperature with normal motherboard temperature typically indicates a CPU cooling issue such as improper heatsink mounting or degraded thermal paste. Checking the cooler installation is the logical first step.

Q24 Medium

When implementing server virtualization, which of the following is a critical consideration for the hypervisor host platform?

  • A The hypervisor host should never run any other applications or services
  • B The hypervisor host should use the same operating system as all guest virtual machines
  • C CPU must support virtualization extensions (VT-x or AMD-V) and adequate resources must be reserved for the hypervisor itself ✓ Correct
  • D Virtualization automatically provides better performance than physical servers regardless of configuration
Explanation

Virtualization requires CPU support for hardware extensions and proper resource allocation to the hypervisor for stability. The hypervisor OS is typically specialized and separate from guest OSes.

Q25 Hard

A server experiencing network latency shows high CPU utilization on a single core while other cores remain idle. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

  • A The network interface card does not support multiqueue functionality or RSS is not enabled ✓ Correct
  • B The switch is misconfigured for that particular server port
  • C The network cable is defective
  • D The server requires a faster network card
Explanation

Without RSS or multiqueue support, all network interrupts are processed by a single CPU core, creating a bottleneck and high latency. Enabling RSS or multiqueue distributes interrupts across cores for better performance.

Q26 Medium

What is the primary purpose of implementing a hot spare in a RAID 5 configuration?

  • A To improve read performance across all drives
  • B To automatically replace a failed drive without manual intervention ✓ Correct
  • C To increase the total storage capacity of the array
  • D To reduce the cost of the RAID implementation
Explanation

A hot spare is an extra drive that automatically takes over when a drive fails, minimizing downtime. It does not increase capacity or primarily improve performance.

Q27 Medium

Which of the following best describes the function of a memory parity bit?

  • A It detects single-bit errors in memory ✓ Correct
  • B It encrypts data stored in RAM
  • C It manages virtual memory allocation
  • D It increases memory access speed
Explanation

A parity bit is used for error detection by checking if data has been corrupted. Single-bit parity can detect but not correct errors.

Q28 Medium

In a server environment, what is the advantage of using ECC memory over non-ECC memory?

  • A It automatically corrects single-bit errors and detects multi-bit errors ✓ Correct
  • B It reduces power consumption by 50 percent
  • C It runs at significantly faster clock speeds
  • D It eliminates the need for memory caching altogether
Explanation

ECC (Error-Correcting Code) memory can both detect and correct single-bit errors, which is critical for server reliability. Non-ECC memory only detects errors without correction.

Q29 Hard

Which metric is most important when evaluating thermal management in a server?

  • A The physical size of the server form factor
  • B The junction temperature of critical components relative to their maximum rated temperature ✓ Correct
  • C The total number of fans installed in the chassis
  • D The ambient room temperature setting
Explanation

Junction temperature indicates how close components are to thermal failure. This is more critical than fan count or room temperature because it reflects actual component stress.

Q30 Medium

What does IPMI primarily enable administrators to do?

  • A Encrypt all network traffic between servers and clients
  • B Automatically partition disk storage across multiple servers
  • C Monitor and manage server hardware remotely, even when the OS is down ✓ Correct
  • D Schedule automated backups and restore operations
Explanation

IPMI (Intelligent Platform Management Interface) provides out-of-band management access to hardware sensors, logs, and controls independent of the operating system.

Q31 Medium

In the context of server power supplies, what does PFC stand for and why is it important?

  • A Peak Flow Calibration; it measures maximum power delivery capacity
  • B Power Factor Correction; it improves efficiency and reduces utility costs ✓ Correct
  • C Parallel Frequency Control; it synchronizes multiple power supplies
  • D Primary Failover Conversion; it switches to backup power systems
Explanation

PFC improves power factor efficiency, reducing wasted energy and lowering electricity bills. It also helps comply with power quality standards.

Q32 Hard

Which of the following would be the best approach to minimize latency in a high-performance server application?

  • A Increase the number of CPU cores to double the processing threads
  • B Install the maximum amount of RAM possible regardless of CPU capability
  • C Maximize network bandwidth by upgrading all NICs to 100 Gbps
  • D Use SSD storage with low queue depth and optimize memory access patterns ✓ Correct
Explanation

Latency is minimized through fast storage (SSDs), reduced queue depth, and optimized memory access patterns. Adding RAM or cores without optimization won't reduce latency.

Q33 Medium

What is the primary function of a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) in a server?

  • A It monitors CPU temperature and controls cooling fan speeds
  • B It stores encryption keys and provides secure cryptographic operations ✓ Correct
  • C It provides redundancy for network interface cards
  • D It manages logical volume allocation across storage devices
Explanation

TPM is a security device that stores cryptographic keys and performs secure operations like attestation and encryption, protecting sensitive data.

Q34 Hard

In RAID 6, what is the minimum number of drives required and what is its primary advantage over RAID 5?

  • A Minimum 4 drives; allows two simultaneous drive failures without data loss ✓ Correct
  • B Minimum 6 drives; eliminates the need for hot spares
  • C Minimum 4 drives; provides 50% faster write performance
  • D Minimum 3 drives; allows one drive to fail without data loss
Explanation

RAID 6 requires at least 4 drives and uses dual parity to survive two simultaneous drive failures, which is crucial for large capacity drives with long rebuild times.

Q35 Easy

What does a POST (Power-On Self-Test) typically check during server startup?

  • A The firmware update schedule and pending security patches
  • B Basic hardware components including CPU, memory, and storage controllers ✓ Correct
  • C Only the network connectivity and firewall configuration
  • D The operating system kernel integrity and installed application versions
Explanation

POST is a firmware-level diagnostic that verifies essential hardware components are functional before the OS loads. It does not check OS or application integrity.

Q36 Hard

Which interface standard would provide the fastest sequential data transfer for server storage in a modern data center?

  • A SAS 3.0 with maximum throughput of 12 Gbps
  • B SATA 3.0 with speeds up to 6 Gbps
  • C NVMe over Fibre Channel at 16 Gbps
  • D NVMe PCIe 4.0 with speeds up to 64 Gbps across a 16-lane connection ✓ Correct
Explanation

NVMe PCIe 4.0 provides the highest transfer rates among current standards, with a 16-lane connection supporting up to 64 Gbps, far exceeding SATA and traditional SAS speeds.

Q37 Medium

What is the primary benefit of implementing redundant network interface cards (NIC teaming) in a server?

  • A It automatically compresses all outgoing network traffic
  • B It doubles the maximum speed of each individual network connection
  • C It provides failover capability and increases available bandwidth ✓ Correct
  • D It eliminates the need for network switch configuration
Explanation

NIC teaming provides redundancy so if one NIC fails the other continues operating, and it can aggregate bandwidth across multiple NICs for increased throughput.

Q38 Medium

In a virtualized server environment, what does CPU oversubscription refer to?

  • A Installing more CPUs in a server than the motherboard can support
  • B Allocating more vCPUs to virtual machines than physical CPU cores available ✓ Correct
  • C Running VMs on a CPU that exceeds its maximum temperature rating
  • D Assigning exclusive CPU cores to prevent other VMs from using them
Explanation

CPU oversubscription means allocating more virtual CPU resources than available physical cores. While this can improve utilization, it may reduce performance if too many VMs are active simultaneously.

Q39 Easy

What is the primary purpose of implementing a UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) in a server infrastructure?

  • A To replace the need for redundant power supplies within each server
  • B To reduce electricity consumption and lower operational costs
  • C To provide temporary power during outages and allow controlled shutdown ✓ Correct
  • D To increase the voltage supplied to server components for better performance
Explanation

A UPS bridges the gap during power loss, providing time for graceful shutdown or failover to generators. It protects against data loss and hardware damage.

Q40 Hard

Which of the following is the most critical factor when selecting a processor for a server that will run multi-threaded database workloads?

  • A The TDP rating and power consumption
  • B The maximum clock speed of the CPU
  • C The number of cores and threads available ✓ Correct
  • D The size of the L1 cache memory
Explanation

Multi-threaded database workloads benefit most from multiple cores and threads as they allow parallel query processing. Clock speed is secondary to the ability to execute concurrent operations.

Q41 Medium

In server storage, what does IOPS stand for and why is it significant?

  • A Input/Output Operations Per Second; it measures random access performance ✓ Correct
  • B It represents the incremental overhead of persistent storage systems
  • C It measures the amount of data stored per terabyte unit
  • D It calculates the integrated optical processing speed
Explanation

IOPS (Input/Output Operations Per Second) is critical for random access workloads like databases and transaction processing, not sequential throughput.

Q42 Hard

What is the purpose of implementing memory mirroring in a server architecture?

  • A To allow multiple CPUs to share the same memory modules
  • B To speed up memory access by storing frequently used data twice
  • C To provide fault tolerance by duplicating memory contents across two DIMM channels ✓ Correct
  • D To automatically backup all data to a network storage device
Explanation

Memory mirroring duplicates data across memory channels so if one channel fails, the other maintains system operation. This is critical for high-availability systems.

Q43 Medium

Which RAID level provides the best balance between performance, storage efficiency, and fault tolerance for most enterprise servers?

  • A RAID 5 with distributed parity and good performance characteristics ✓ Correct
  • B RAID 1 for simple mirroring across all drives
  • C RAID 10 which mirrors and stripes data
  • D RAID 0 for maximum throughput without any redundancy
Explanation

RAID 5 offers a good compromise with single drive fault tolerance, efficient storage usage (one drive for parity), and acceptable performance for most enterprise workloads.

Q44 Medium

What does the term 'headroom' refer to in server capacity planning?

  • A The physical space available in a data center rack
  • B The reserved performance capacity to handle peak loads and unexpected spikes ✓ Correct
  • C The vertical height of the server chassis in rack units
  • D The amount of unused hard drive space on storage devices
Explanation

Headroom is the buffer of unused resources (CPU, memory, storage) intentionally kept available to handle peak demand without service degradation.

Q45 Medium

In the context of server redundancy, what is the key difference between active-active and active-passive configurations?

  • A Active-active serves requests from both servers simultaneously; active-passive has one standby server that activates only upon failure ✓ Correct
  • B Active-active uses two servers while active-passive uses one server
  • C Active-active requires fiber optic connections while active-passive uses Ethernet
  • D Active-active is more expensive but active-passive provides better fault tolerance
Explanation

Active-active distributes the load across both systems for better utilization, while active-passive keeps one system standing by, activating only when needed.

Q46 Medium

What is the primary advantage of using a SAN (Storage Area Network) rather than direct-attached storage in a server infrastructure?

  • A It reduces network latency by storing data on individual servers
  • B It automatically encrypts all data at the network level
  • C It allows multiple servers to access the same storage and enables easier expansion and management ✓ Correct
  • D It completely eliminates the need for backup and disaster recovery
Explanation

SAN provides centralized storage that multiple servers can access, enabling better resource utilization, easier expansion, and simplified management compared to isolated direct-attached storage.

Q47 Easy

Which of the following represents a critical consideration when implementing server firmware updates?

  • A Updates automatically roll back if they cause any system instability
  • B Firmware updates require a complete server restart and should be scheduled during maintenance windows ✓ Correct
  • C Firmware updates do not affect system performance and can be applied anytime
  • D Updates should be applied immediately regardless of current workload
Explanation

Firmware updates typically require server restarts and should be carefully scheduled during maintenance windows to avoid service interruption and production impact.

Q48 Hard

What does the term 'Write Hole' refer to in RAID arrays, and why is it a concern?

  • A A data loss scenario during a power failure when parity has not yet been written to disk ✓ Correct
  • B The unused storage space allocated for RAID metadata
  • C It is the physical gap between drives in a RAID enclosure
  • D The delay in write performance compared to read operations
Explanation

The write hole occurs when a power failure happens after data is written but before parity is updated, potentially leaving the array in an inconsistent state. Battery-backed cache or journaling mitigates this.

Q49 Medium

In the context of server networking, what does QoS (Quality of Service) primarily accomplish?

  • A It prioritizes certain types of traffic to ensure critical services maintain adequate bandwidth and latency ✓ Correct
  • B It monitors network usage for billing purposes only
  • C It automatically removes all network congestion by increasing available bandwidth
  • D It encrypts all network traffic to prevent unauthorized access
Explanation

QoS allows administrators to prioritize traffic based on application requirements, ensuring critical services like voice or real-time data get the resources they need even during congestion.

Q50 Medium

A server administrator needs to configure a RAID 6 array with six 2TB drives. What is the minimum usable capacity of this RAID array?

  • A 6TB
  • B 12TB
  • C 8TB ✓ Correct
  • D 10TB
Explanation

RAID 6 requires two drives' worth of capacity for parity protection, so with six 2TB drives, usable capacity is (6-2) × 2TB = 8TB.

Q51 Medium

When should a system administrator implement hot spare drives in a RAID configuration?

  • A When the server has unlimited power supply capacity
  • B Only when using RAID 0
  • C Only when the primary drives are at least five years old
  • D In any RAID configuration that includes fault tolerance, particularly RAID 1, 5, 6, or 10 to enable automatic rebuild without administrative intervention ✓ Correct
Explanation

Hot spares are beneficial in fault-tolerant RAID levels to automatically replace failed drives and prevent data loss, improving system resilience.

Q52 Easy

A server is experiencing memory errors detected by ECC. What is the primary purpose of ECC memory in a server environment?

  • A To provide faster memory access than standard RAM
  • B To detect and correct single-bit memory errors automatically, preventing data corruption in mission-critical applications ✓ Correct
  • C To increase processor clock speed by 10-15%
  • D To reduce power consumption during idle states
Explanation

ECC (Error-Correcting Code) memory automatically detects and corrects single-bit errors, which is critical for server reliability and data integrity in 24/7 environments.

Q53 Medium

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) in a server?

  • A Managing network bandwidth allocation and QoS policies
  • B Monitoring hard drive temperature and predicting drive failures
  • C Controlling fan speeds based on system load
  • D Providing secure storage for cryptographic keys and enabling secure boot verification to protect against firmware tampering ✓ Correct
Explanation

TPM is a security component that securely stores encryption keys, enables secure boot, and provides attestation to verify server integrity and prevent unauthorized firmware modifications.

Q54 Medium

A data center has experienced a power failure affecting multiple servers. After power restoration, several servers fail to boot. Which power-related feature should have been configured to prevent this issue?

  • A Power supply with higher wattage rating
  • B Automatic Power On (APO) to restore servers to their pre-failure state automatically ✓ Correct
  • C UPS with battery backup for continuous power during outages
  • D Redundant power supplies with automatic failover capabilities
Explanation

Automatic Power On settings prevent boot failures by automatically restoring servers to their previous power state after power restoration, ensuring consistent recovery without manual intervention.

Q55 Medium

When monitoring server performance, a system administrator observes that CPU utilization frequently exceeds 85% during business hours while memory utilization remains at 40%. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

  • A Add additional CPU cores or distribute the workload across multiple servers to address the CPU bottleneck ✓ Correct
  • B Replace the power supply with a higher capacity unit
  • C Add more RAM to the server immediately
  • D Upgrade the network interface cards
Explanation

When CPU is the bottleneck (consistently high utilization) while memory is underutilized, adding CPU capacity or load balancing across multiple servers will provide better performance improvement than adding memory.

Q56 Hard

A server administrator is implementing a backup strategy and must choose between incremental and differential backups. What is a key difference between these two approaches?

  • A Incremental backups require less storage space than differential backups
  • B Incremental backups only back up files changed since the last backup of any type, while differential backups back up all changes since the last full backup, resulting in longer backup times but faster restore times for differential ✓ Correct
  • C Differential backups cannot be used in production environments
  • D Differential backups are always faster than incremental backups
Explanation

Incremental backups store only changes since any prior backup (requiring less storage but more restore complexity), while differential backups store all changes since the last full backup (requiring more storage but faster restore times).

Q57 Hard

A virtualized server environment requires the hypervisor to allocate physical resources to multiple virtual machines. Which resource allocation method allows VMs to dynamically use available CPU or memory when not needed by other VMs?

  • A Exclusive resource allocation preventing any resource sharing
  • B Static resource reservation requiring manual adjustment by administrators
  • C Memory overcommitment with dynamic ballooning to reclaim unused memory from virtual machines ✓ Correct
  • D Time-sliced distribution ensuring equal allocation regardless of demand
Explanation

Dynamic resource allocation techniques like memory ballooning and CPU scheduling allow hypervisors to efficiently distribute resources based on actual usage, maximizing overall system utilization.

Q58 Hard

During a firmware update on a server, the process is interrupted due to a power loss. Which of the following is the most likely result?

  • A The server may become unbootable or unstable, requiring manual recovery procedures or BIOS chip replacement in worst-case scenarios ✓ Correct
  • B The firmware update will resume automatically after power restoration
  • C The update will have no effect, and the original firmware remains intact
  • D The server will automatically roll back to the previous firmware version
Explanation

Interrupted firmware updates can corrupt the firmware image, potentially rendering the server unbootable and requiring recovery through manual BIOS flashing or hardware replacement.

Q59 Medium

A server requires the ability to recover from hardware failures without manual intervention. Which clustering technology best provides automatic failover of services to a healthy node?

  • A Shared storage without any node communication
  • B Active-passive clustering with heartbeat monitoring to automatically shift services from failed nodes to standby nodes ✓ Correct
  • C Network segmentation to isolate failed servers from the network
  • D Load balancing only, as it distributes traffic equally across all servers
Explanation

Active-passive clustering with heartbeat mechanisms detects node failures and automatically transfers services to standby nodes, providing transparent failover and high availability without manual intervention.

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